How to show that any polytope $P$ is spanned by the neighboring edges of any vertex $x$?
Farkas' Lemma is indeed the way to go, but we need the right setting. Below I give a sketch.
For simplicity, assume that we work at a vertex $x=0$ of $P$. So we want to find a minimal set of generators for the cone $\DeclareMathOperator{\cone}{cone}C:=\cone(P)=\cone (\mathcal V)$, where $\mathcal V\subseteq P$ is the set of vertices of $P$. What we want to understand is whether every such "minimal generator" $y\in\mathcal V$ is a neighbor of $x$, because if so, then the edge-directions indeed generate $C$.
![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cTPBd.png)
So, suppose that $y\in \mathcal V$ is part of such a minimal set of generators. Then $y\not\in C':=\cone(\mathcal V\setminus \{y\})$ (here you need to use that no three vertices of $P$ are colinear). By Farkas' Lemma, we can then separate $y$ from $C'$ via a hyperplane. In particular, we can choose this hyperplane with normal vector $n$ so that
$$\def\<{\langle}\def\>{\rangle}\<n,x\>=0,\quad\<n,y\> >0\quad\text{and}\quad\<n,z\><0\text{ for all $z\in \mathcal V\setminus\{x,y\}$}.$$
It is not too hard to argue that we can choose $n$ linearly independent from $y$ (if we are working in dimension $d\ge 2$). Then
$$n':=n-y\frac{\<n,y\>}{\<y,y\>} \not=0.$$
You can check that we have $\<n',x\>=\<n',y\>=0$ and $\<n',z\><0$ for all $z\in \mathcal V\setminus\{x,y\}$ (the latter needs some thought, but is possible). In other words, the hyperplane orthogonal to $n'$ supports $P$ exacty at the two vertices $x$ and $y$, which proves that these form an edge of $P$. In still other words, $\cone(P)$ is generated by the neighbors of $x$.
Some further explanation
As requested in the comments, I elaborate on $\<n',z\><0$ for all $z\in\mathcal V\setminus\{x,y\}$. As Epiousios noted, this is the same as
$$(*)\quad \underbrace{\<n,z\>}_{<0} < \underbrace{\frac{\<n,y\>}{\<y,y\>}}_{>0} \<y,z\>,$$
which would be obviously true if $\<y,z\>>0$. However, this is not always the case.
But, we can do a trick: before we start with any of our argument, we can tranform our polytope $P$ into an more convenient polytope $P'$, for which any two neighbors $y,z$ of $x=0$ satisfy $\<y,z\>>0$ (meaning $\sphericalangle(y,z)<90^\circ$). We can do this by stretching $P$ in a certain way. Hopefully, the following image makes this clearer:
![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6Z9b0.png)
Since this is a linear transformation, this changes nothing about the actual problem. But this time $(*)$ is trivially satified.