Is log(n!) = Θ(n·log(n))?

Remember that

log(n!) = log(1) + log(2) + ... + log(n-1) + log(n)

You can get the upper bound by

log(1) + log(2) + ... + log(n) <= log(n) + log(n) + ... + log(n)
                                = n*log(n)

And you can get the lower bound by doing a similar thing after throwing away the first half of the sum:

log(1) + ... + log(n/2) + ... + log(n) >= log(n/2) + ... + log(n) 
                                       = log(n/2) + log(n/2+1) + ... + log(n-1) + log(n)
                                       >= log(n/2) + ... + log(n/2)
                                        = n/2 * log(n/2) 

I realize this is a very old question with an accepted answer, but none of these answers actually use the approach suggested by the hint.

It is a pretty simple argument:

n! (= 1*2*3*...*n) is a product of n numbers each less than or equal to n. Therefore it is less than the product of n numbers all equal to n; i.e., n^n.

Half of the numbers -- i.e. n/2 of them -- in the n! product are greater than or equal to n/2. Therefore their product is greater than the product of n/2 numbers all equal to n/2; i.e. (n/2)^(n/2).

Take logs throughout to establish the result.

Sorry, I don't know how to use LaTeX syntax on stackoverflow..