limit in probability is almost surely unique?

Back to basics: Assume that $X_n\to X$ in probability and that $X_n\to Y$ in probability. Then, for every positive $x$, $P(|X_n-X|\geqslant x)+P(|X_n-Y|\geqslant x)$ converges to zero since both terms do. Now, $$[|X-Y|\geqslant 2x]\subseteq[|X_n-X|\geqslant x]\cup[|X_n-Y|\geqslant x],$$ hence, for every $n$, $$ P(|X-Y|\geqslant2x)\leqslant P(|X_n-X|\geqslant x)+P(|X_n-Y|\geqslant x). $$ Considering the limit of the RHS when $n\to+\infty$, this proves that $P(|X-Y|\geqslant2x)=0$. This holds for every positive $x$ and $$[X\ne Y]=\bigcup_{k\geqslant1}[|X-Y|\geqslant k^{-1}],$$ hence $P(X\ne Y)=0$. This means that $X=Y$ almost surely.

Note: The hypothesis that $X_n\to X$ in probability and $X_n\to Y$ in probability, which we used above, is weaker than the hypothesis that $X_n\to X$ in probability and $X_n\to Y$ almost surely.