What are some methods to show $\log$ is not a rational function?
One reason is that a rational function is defined over all $\mathbb R$ except for a finite number of points, but $\log$ is not.
Let's prove that $\log$ is not even a rational function restricted to $(0,+\infty)$.
If $\log = \dfrac GQ$, then $\dfrac 1x = \log' = \dfrac{G'Q-GQ'}{Q^2}$.
This implies that $G$ and $Q$ have the same degree and therefore $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{G(x)}{Q(x)}$ is finite.
But $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \log(x) = \infty$.
More generally we can prove that $\log x$ is not an algebraic function using the following property of $\log x$: $$\lim_{x \to 0^{+}}x^{a}\log x = 0\tag{1}$$ for all positive numbers $a$.
Let's assume on the contrary that $y = \log x$ is an algebraic function. Then we have polynomial functions $a_{1}(x), a_{2}(x), \ldots, a_{n}(x)$ such that $$a_{0}(x)y^{n} + a_{1}(x)y^{n - 1} + \cdots + a_{n - 1}(x)y + a_{n}(x) = 0\tag{2}$$ for all values of $x > 0$. Also note that in the above equation we have both $a_{0}(x), a_{n}(x)$ as non-zero polynomials. Now taking limits for both sides of equation $(2)$ as $x \to 0^{+}$ and using $(1)$ we see that if $b_{i}$ are constant terms of $a_{i}(x)$ then $$\lim_{x \to 0^{+}}(b_{0}y^{n} + b_{1}y^{n - 1} + b_{n - 1}y + \cdots + b_{n}) = 0\tag{3}$$ Dividing by $y$ and noting that $y = \log x \to -\infty$ as $x \to 0^{+}$ we get $$\lim_{x \to 0^{+}}(b_{0}y^{n - 1} + b_{1}y^{n - 2} + \cdots + b_{n - 1}) = 0$$ Repeating the same argument we finally get that $b_{0}, b_{1}, \ldots, b_{n} = 0$. Thus the equation $(2)$ can be divided by $x$ to obtain a similar equation and we can apply the same argument on this new equation. Carrying on this procedure we ultimately get that all the coefficients of the polynomials $a_{i}(x)$ are $0$ and hence all these polynomials are zero polynomials. This contradicts the fact that both $a_{0}(x), a_{n}(x)$ are non-zero polynomials.
For the current question (i.e. prove that $\log x$ is not a rational function) it suffices to take $n = 1$ in the preceding argument.
A rational function $r$ vanishes at $\infty$ or there is an integer power $q$ so that $r(x)\sim c\cdot x^q$ as $x\to\infty$. The log function exhibits none of these behaviors.